Was the man we know as Shakespeare really the author of

the "Shakespearean Works"? We know little about the man called

Shakespeare, Did he really write the plays, or is he just a man that 

got confused within history? (Sobran 44) There is not even a

correct spelling of this mans name, Some of the spellings include

Shakspere, Shakespeare, And Shaxpere. Shakespeare, Is it the man, Or 

is it another? (Hayes 1D)



        Shakespeare is both fact and fiction, he was no concern until

nearly two hundred years after he perished, and there is still no 

definite or probably will there ever be a conclusion to this

mystery. (Sobran 44) There is another man that can be attributed with 

the works of "Shakespeare", His name is Edward DeVere, the 17th Earl 

of Oxford. (Bethell 47) 



        The man known as Shakespeare does not fit perfectly into the

necessary criteria to determine the author of these works. Thomas 

Looney invented a series of criteria that had to be filled, in order 

to be a possible candidate for the authorship of the Shakespearean 

works. To have all the knowledge that is portrayed in the works, the 

author must have accomplished many things. These including a superior 

education, from what we know of "Shakespeare", this was not a

possibility.(Bethell 46) We do not even know if Shakespeare has ever

written anything in his life, Nor do we know that he was paid for 

writing these works. The man Shakespeare does not even make a claim 

that he is the author.(Bethell 50) He may not have been able to write 

the simplest thing of all, His own name.(Hayes 1D) 

        

        Its not how little we know about Shakespeare that causes 

confusion and difficulty, Its the things that we do know about this 

man that cause the confusion and difficulty. We know Shakespears 

father, a glover, could not write. When he signed documents, he simply 

made an "X", This is why it is beleived that Shakespeare could not 

write also, Because he probably did not attend school therefore his 

education was passed down from his father. (Bethell 48)



        We do know much more about the man Edward DeVere. We know that

because deVere was a nobleman, he could not have his name written upon 

his writings because he would be considered of a lower class. The 

plays contain a sense of hate towards some of the noblemen of that 

time period, which also point the authorship towards DeVere.  (Hayes 

1D) When DeVere was a young man, he spent a lot of time in Italy and 

Europe, This could explain the great detail used in the Shakespearean 

plays of Venice, and other European locations.(Sobran 45) The sonnets 

have never been able to fit into Shakespears life, On the other hand 

they fit into DeVere's life well. (Sobran 45)



        There are facts that lean both ways in this age old mystery of

authorship, Though the Strafordian man does not fit into the story 

very well, He may have some advantages that the Oxfordian man may not. 

DeVere on the other hand, has mostly every fact pointing towards him 

as the valid author for the "Shakespearean" works, From his education, 

to his experiences, to his travel. The Oxfordian seems to come out on 

top. Shakespeare: Stratforidan, or DeVere?